Peruvian Spanish

Hi guys,

I'm trying to learn Peruvian Spanish and would like to know some of the characteristics in their accent and usage.

Any thoughts?

I also want to know how their language sounds like to los Latinos from other areas. To me, Peruvian Spanish sounds clear and soft.

Thanks in advance:)

Peruvian Spanish sounds a bit like Chilean Spanish but a bit more neutral and less sang, however it is not the best option because they don't pronounce all S's and skip a lot of the D's as as well, if you wanna learn properly spoken Spanish in Latin America I'd recommend you learning Mexican or Colombian Spanish.

Gato, thanks for your comment. Yeah, I've heard of the consonant ommisionDo Colombians and Mexicans pronounce all s's and d's?

Also is there any rules for s and d omission in Peruvian Spanish?

I've heard people say "todo' los dias" in stead of "todos los dias".

if you wanna learn properly spoken Spanish in Latin America I'd recommend you learning Mexican or Colombian Spanish.


I don't recommed Mexican Spanish, it has weird syntax and it's full of localisms/slang. Colombian Spanish is fine tho'.

Personally, I find Chilean and Argentinian Spanish best .
Mexican sounds too Gypsy-like and staccato-rifle gun, Argentinian is so melodic just like Italian.

yes, argentine spanish sounds the best...

Castillian Spanish is the best.

and the omission of D's is so normal, almost everybody omit D in -ado, at the end of a word etc...

Thanks guys for your replies. Now I really don't know which one is good... lol

Is there any website where I can compare different accents of Spanish?

I heard español de españa once and thought the dental fricative sticks to my ear.

<<and the omission of D's is so normal, almost everybody omit D in -ado, at the end of a word etc...>>
In Colombia and Mexico they don't, they do pronounce all letters.

<<In Colombia and Mexico they don't, they do pronounce all letters. >>

Does every place else omit the D's?

<<Does every place else omit the D's?>>
Yes, not all the time, but it's definatly not consistent.

What about the omission of "s" in Latin America?

Is there a rule or does it happen just randomly?

Is there a rule or does it happen just randomly?
//


Most people don't omit the syllable-final S, but they pronounce it like aspiration, English [h].

estas [ehtah]
las Palmas [lahpalmah].


In regions where people don't have [h] in their vowel chart (Central Peninsular Spanish, Central Mexican) they don't perceive it as a vowel, but a simple aspiraton: a zero: [ ]

In Argentinian Spanish on the other hand, there is a difference between h (pronounced as [x], velar) and -s (pronounced as [h] aspiration):

justos ['xuhtoh] pronounced and perceived by Argentinians,
['xuto] perceived by nonArgentinians.

">I don't recommed Mexican Spanish, it has weird syntax and it's full of localisms/slang. Colombian Spanish is fine tho'.<"

Mexican Spanish is rather neutral then robust or frail; especially if one learns it academically. Localisms / slang is just a part of its culture as many of Mexico's inhabitants pride themselves regionally more so then nationally, thereby having less cohesion in language. Regarding syntax Mexicans are known to over stress or add more words then needed to get their point across; however, Mexican grammar seems - in my opinion -to be rather consistent then inconsistent, it is just the aforementioned of additioning and of emphasis that is expressed with Mexicans.

Syntax

Several syntactic patterns that sound very 'non-standard' to the Peninsular ear are routine in Mexican Spanish. First and foremost is the more or less conventionalized ellipsis of the negative particle "no" in clauses containing the preposition "hasta" (until):

* Será publicado hasta fines de año. (that is, 'It will not be published until the end of the year.')
* Cierran hasta las nueve. ('They don't close until 9 o'clock.')
* Hasta que tomé la píldora se me quitó el dolor. ('Until I took the pill, the pain did not go away.')

In each case, the sentence has the sense indicated by the English translation only if the main verb is implicitly understood as being negated.

A departure from Peninsular usage involves using interrogative "qué" in conjunction with the quantifier "tan(to)"[citation needed] ("Qué tan" "Qué tanto" = How):

* ¿Qué tan graves son los daños? (Whereas in Spain the question would be posed as "¿Cómo son de graves los daños?") (How serious are the damages?)
* ¿Qué tan buen cocinero eres? (How good of a cook are you?)
* ¿Qué tanto cuesta? (As opposed to "¿Cuánto cuesta?") (How much/many is it?)

Note that phenomena relating to bilingualism are likely to be encountered among bilinguals whose primary language is not Spanish or in isolated rural regions where the syntactic influence of indigenous languages has been important historically. One of the most discussed of these phenomena is the redundant use of verbal clitics, particularly "lo", a tendency that is encountered in language contact areas throughout Latin America

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mexican_Spanish

<<What about the omission of "s" in Latin America?

Is there a rule or does it happen just randomly? >>

It is also randomly, sometimes they do, sometimes they don't, but they all know that they should be pronounced, that's why in News Programs and such they all try to speak properly, that includes pronouncing all the S's and D's.

And again in Latin America the only 2 countries that do pronounce them all the time are Mexico and Colombia, even in Spain, the southern half sometimes omits the S's, but not all the time.