I'm a native speaker and the other day it suddenly dawned on me that I couldn't work out which would be correct out of the following examples:
'You should ask whoever is responsible'
'You should ask whomever is responsible''
Of course it isn't much of an issue normally as the 'who/whom' distinction is increasingly redundant. But if you really want to be grammatically correct, which IS gramatically correct?
The problem I see is that the 'who/whomever' functions as both subject and object. You are asking the person so they are the object, but you are saying the person is responsible, so they are are also the subject simultaneously, all within the space of one sentence. So they become the object of the verb, but a finite verb is also linked to them.
I know that if you said something like 'You should speak to who requested it', it couldn't be replaced by 'whom', but here you can see it should really be 'You should speak to THE PERSON who requested it', so it's a bit different.
Having learnt German, with its greater use of cases, this especially interests me. This could never happen in German, as it would always use some kind of subordinate clause, with both an object and subject form.
What do you think?
'You should ask whoever is responsible'
'You should ask whomever is responsible''
Of course it isn't much of an issue normally as the 'who/whom' distinction is increasingly redundant. But if you really want to be grammatically correct, which IS gramatically correct?
The problem I see is that the 'who/whomever' functions as both subject and object. You are asking the person so they are the object, but you are saying the person is responsible, so they are are also the subject simultaneously, all within the space of one sentence. So they become the object of the verb, but a finite verb is also linked to them.
I know that if you said something like 'You should speak to who requested it', it couldn't be replaced by 'whom', but here you can see it should really be 'You should speak to THE PERSON who requested it', so it's a bit different.
Having learnt German, with its greater use of cases, this especially interests me. This could never happen in German, as it would always use some kind of subordinate clause, with both an object and subject form.
What do you think?