Listen to this guy

Johnny   Fri Jul 04, 2008 5:13 pm GMT
Maybe it's just me, but I would like to ask anyway. Here's the video. It's just a couple of things he says at the beginning.

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=H7vlMgNyFXM

At 0:06 - "Hey, we have a..." - That "we" sounds like it's reduced to /wɪ/ to me.The question is, is it ok to reduce particles like "he, she, we" like that in American English? My answer would be no. I know it's done in cases (for example "he'll", "we're", etc.), but not in general. I don't think "he's" is commonly reduced to sound like "his", for example.

At 0:12 - "I used to have..." - This "have" is reduced to "ev" (IPA /ɛv/), and I get it. I don't expect "have" to be reduced to "əv" completely, unless it's part of a compound verbal form (as in "I have tried it").
But a few seconds later he says "...a new laptop that has a Core 2..." reducing that "has" to "əz". Is that normal? Is so, it's impossible to distinguish "is" from "has", since they would both be halfway between /əz/ and /ɪz/. She has a hoe = She is a hoe. Weird! So I was expecting that "has" to be reduced to /ɛz/ instead.

I'd really like to hear some opinions on this. Thanks.