Latin is easy?

<<and are the tenses the same as in Latin? for instance, the future tense you mention above is not really the Latin future tense: portābō portābimus >>

It is really the Latin future tense because Latin had future and future perfect. Spanish amaré derives from future perfect: amáveró amáverimus




<<and the passive tenses are missing: portābor portābimur >>

Passive is not a tense but a kind of mood or "aspect". I can't remember well. But yes, it's expressed in Romance languages with modal verbs as well. Anyway Romance languages rely more on conjugations than modal verbs overall.

The passive tenses are missing in romance languages, this is true and nowadays they only possess analytical forms like Germanic languages, but their verbal system is still rich and varied. Most romance languages have created new tenses and moods which did not exist in Latin like the Conditinal mood. For instance, English: I would speak, Spanish: yo hablaria, Italian: parlerei etc. Even the subjuctive mood is well preserved in most romance languages.

amaré derives from future perfect: amáveró amáverimus

This is totally false
amaré derives from amar + he (verb to have)

You are not a linguist but a clueless stupid.

<<amaré derives from future perfect: amáveró amáverimus

This is totally false
amaré derives from amar + he (verb to have) >>

This is correct.
Romance language future tense is formed by post-positioned modal use of 'habere', placed on the infinitive


amaré = [I] [to]-love-have: i.e. "I have to love" --> "I will love"

No, you are totally wrong. All linguistis agree that it derives from latin. Romance languages never use haber as an auxiliary verb after the modified verb.
For example Yo he amado
Yo habré amado
Yo amar+ he? That sounds stupid and baseless. That's not the Romance way and never heard such idiocy.

"No, you are totally wrong. All linguistis agree that it derives from latin. Romance languages never use haber as an auxiliary verb after the modified verb.
For example Yo he amado
Yo habré amado
Yo amar+ he? That sounds stupid and baseless. That's not the Romance way and never heard such idiocy"


Please instead of talking rubbish again, please buy and read a good book about romance languages...Every serious linguistic knows that. It's basic

te aconsejo que leas mas y para de decir tonterias de una vez

I have a degree in Spanish Filology and never was told that Spanish future tense amaré derives from amar and he. Do you have sources to back that idiocy? Well, I know I'm asking in vain, but still...

I have a degree in Spanish Filology and never was told that Spanish future tense amaré derives from amar and he. Do you have sources to back that idiocy? Well, I know I'm asking in vain, but still...

In German the auxiliary used is werden, literally 'become', and wollen and sollen always have the forceful sense. The following verb, which goes to the end of the clause as all demoted verbs do in German, is in the infinitive or -en form: Ich werde Mary besuchen. In English only the verb be has a distinct infinitive form: I will be, I am going to be, not *I will am.
In Romance languages there are one-word future tense forms, whose endings derive from the infinitive followed by the inflected present of 'to have': French j'ai 'I have', chanter 'to sing', je chanterai 'I'll sing'; Italian ho 'I have', cantare 'to sing', canterò 'I'll sing'. In Vulgar Latin this began as a compound locution cantare habeo (pronounced cantar aveo), replacing the Classical Latin future, which used the suffix -bi-: cantabis 'you will sing'. However, French (at least) has also developed a compound form with 'go': je vais chanter = 'I am going to sing'. (I am told Spanish and Portuguese also have, so this alternative might go back to Vulgar Latin too.) The grammaticalization of 'go' to 'future' is common.

Haber always comes before the verb when it functions as an auxiliary. Anyway, then habré would derive from haber he, isn't it? Too much redundancy.

<<Romance languages never use haber as an auxiliary verb after the modified verb.>>

This might be the usual case today, but it wasn't so in the past.

<,<<Romance languages never use haber as an auxiliary verb after the modified verb.>>

This might be the usual case today, but it wasn't so in the past. >>

...and it was after the infinitive of the verb, not a modified verb

Spanish future tense derives from Latin future perfect.

Spanish future tense derives from Latin future perfect.


In your dreams
Dans tes rêves
Nei tuoi sogni
En tus sueños
Nos teus sonhos

Italian future tense : ameró
Latin future perfect: amavero