Why do English infinitives always consist of the word "to" + the actual verb unlike most other languages where infinitives are only one word? For example using German "to have" vs "haben" or "to sing" vs "singen"
Question about infinitives
i think maybe because there is very little conjugation in english verbs. so it is a way to distinguish between the conjugated and the infinitive.
to sing:
I sing
you sing
he/she/it sings
we sing
you (all) sing
they sing
but in german...
singen:
ich singe
du singst
er/sie/es singt
wir singen
ihr singt
sie singen
to sing:
I sing
you sing
he/she/it sings
we sing
you (all) sing
they sing
but in german...
singen:
ich singe
du singst
er/sie/es singt
wir singen
ihr singt
sie singen
Afrikaans does it like English - but they have 2 words to put onto the start!
To be: Om te wees
To have: Om te hê
To sing: Om te sing
And Afrikaans has no conjugations in the present tense, so your hypothesis could be right.
To be: Om te wees
To have: Om te hê
To sing: Om te sing
And Afrikaans has no conjugations in the present tense, so your hypothesis could be right.
"Why do English infinitives always consist of the word 'to' + the actual verb unlike most other languages where infinitives are only one word?"
The English infinitive is only one word. The prepositional marker "to" is placed in front of the infinitive in most, but by no means all, situations where it is used.
I would like to know the price.
I must know the price
You'd better know the price.
He does know the price.
In all of the above examples, "know" is an infinitive verb.
The English infinitive is only one word. The prepositional marker "to" is placed in front of the infinitive in most, but by no means all, situations where it is used.
I would like to know the price.
I must know the price
You'd better know the price.
He does know the price.
In all of the above examples, "know" is an infinitive verb.