Why did Castilian become Spanish language?

antisun   Sat Feb 21, 2009 8:42 am GMT
Apparently, there have been many languages spoken in Spain including Castilian(Castellano), Catalan(Valencian), Galician and etc.

When and why did "Castilian(Castellano)" begin to be referred as "Spanish language(Español)"?

When and why did "Castilian" become Spain's predominant language?
romeiro   Sat Feb 21, 2009 9:53 am GMT
The same question is why did Thuringian dialect become predominant in Germany,Hollandic-in the Netherlands,langue d'oil in France and so on.
Invité d'honneur   Sat Feb 21, 2009 10:38 am GMT
«The same question is why did Thuringian dialect become predominant in Germany,Hollandic-in the Netherlands,langue d'oil in France and so on. »

In France the reason is simple: war.
Rommel   Sat Feb 21, 2009 12:51 pm GMT
Because when Castile and Aragon united Castile had 5 milliions of inhabitants and Aragon only 700 000.
Necu   Thu Mar 05, 2009 10:37 am GMT
I am castillian without any hindu indian origins. And i don't see where there is a problem. A regional language is not a dialect, it is a speech where everybody can feel free to speak. What is the matter if hindi will be spoken in 50 years more than castillian. It is just another language. It does not matter.
Guest   Thu Mar 05, 2009 10:49 am GMT
You are a frog.
tonecu   Thu Mar 05, 2009 11:21 am GMT
Maybe Spanish (Castilian) language will be predominant in Southern France soon?
Guest   Thu Mar 05, 2009 11:39 am GMT
I doubt, Arabic is pretty strong in the whole France.