Have

I learned recently that the word "have" (Old Norse "hafa", Old Frisian "habba", German "haben") is NOT related to the Latin "Habere" (Italian "avere", French "avoir", Spanish "haber") despite similar meaning and form.

What is the reason?

The reason is that all those languages have got indo-european roots!

Hmm, I really find this incredibly difficult to believe, where did you find this out?

They're not that similar, the English version is a lot simpler.

Caspian if you read a good book of Indo-European linguistics you would probably find that out.

<<Hmm, I really find this incredibly difficult to believe, where did you find this out? >>

Latin 'habere' is not related to English 'have'

The PIE root of Latin 'habere' is *ghabh-; English 'have' is from PIE *kap-

Therefore, Latin 'habere' is related to English 'give' (in its causitive sense "to cause someone to have"), and Latin 'capere' (to grasp) is the true relation to English 'have' and 'heave' (to lift, take up).

'capere' & 'have'/'heave'

'habere' & 'give'

The use of Latin 'habere' as an auxillary verb was taken from german languages like English due to the similarity in form--the usual Latin word for "have/hold" being 'tenere'

«Hmm, I really find this incredibly difficult to believe, where did you find this out? »

Yeah, I was very weirded out when I read it: http://www.etymonline.com/index.php?term=have