'pronunciation' pronunciation
I usually say -- Pro+nun+see+[h]ay+shun (h not pronounced). Often, the initial "o" is schwa'd out, though.
It's pronounced: /pronVnsieS@n/ or by a few people as /pronaUnsieS@n/.
Pro-nunce (like "dunce")-c-aaytion.
Definitely as the recording and the spelling suggests.
I myself say [pʰʁə̃ːˌnʌ̃ntsjˈeʃɨ̃(ː)n], which is actually pretty close to the form of such in General American, aside from the realization of historical /iː/ as [j], which is not standard per se but actually quite common, the monophthongal historical /eɪ̯/, and the uvular /r/.
That should actually be [pʰʁə̃ːˌnʌ̃ntsjˈěʃɨ̃(ː)n] above, but that is only a minor difference in pitch accentuation (yes, my dialect has such in realization).
<< [pʰʁə̃ːˌnʌ̃ntsjˈeʃɨ̃(ː)n] >>
How many of you reading this can understand what it means?
(I don't)
Lol I know how you feel Tony
Well, I can't read it either unfortunately. It's obviously written in IPA, but my mobile phone's browser can't render it properly properly so it just looks like a bunch of gibberish. I can only view transcriptions in XSAMPA.
I much prefer IPA over X-SAMPA, but if you so insist, that's [p_hR@~:%nV~ntsj"e_RS1~(:)n].
<< [pʰʁə̃ːˌnʌ̃ntsjˈeʃɨ̃(ː)n] >>
that's a uvular fricative, or "French R"... why the hell would you pronounce it like that? and where's the diphtong before [ʃ]? it should be [eiʃɨ̃n]
>><< [pʰʁə̃ːˌnʌ̃ntsjˈeʃɨ̃(ː)n] >>
that's a uvular fricative, or "French R"... why the hell would you pronounce it like that? and where's the diphtong before [ʃ]? it should be [eiʃɨ̃n]<<
Mind you that historical /eɪ̯/ and /oʊ̯/ are not diphthongs in all English dialects, and that some dialects in the Upper Midwest actually have uvular rhotics, at least in certain environments. (Note that that is really a uvular approximant, not a voiced uvular fricative, most of the time, like such in German rather than such in French.)
I pronounce it with a short "u". How it's supposed to be pronounced. Like we do in Gaysachusetts.