Using "come" as present-tence

Trimac20   Wed Apr 22, 2009 3:10 pm GMT
Instead of 'came.' So it's used in the same way as the present tense verb. For instance, "he come down to my place at 9pm" instead of "he <i>came</i> down at 9pm. Seems to be common in Australia among older speakers and those in the country. I think it's from the English. It sounds pretty strange to my ears. Is it used in other parts of the English speaking world?
Lazar   Wed Apr 22, 2009 6:22 pm GMT
You mean as a past tense? No, I'm not familiar with that here in the US.
Kess   Wed Apr 22, 2009 7:01 pm GMT
It's common to use: ''I win, you win'' for '' I (have) just won, you (have) just won...''
Trimac20   Thu Apr 23, 2009 2:17 am GMT
Sorry yes, I meant past-tense
+   Thu Apr 23, 2009 4:33 am GMT
This seems rather unusual. I cannot recall ever hearing this anywhere in the United States or Canada.
1+1=2   Thu Apr 23, 2009 5:20 am GMT
Face it! English sucks!
Leasnam   Thu Apr 23, 2009 1:50 pm GMT
This is a corruption of "He ['d/had] come down to my place...", where the 'd/had has been so reduced that it is no longer heard and has gradiating into this new "form".
AJC   Thu Apr 23, 2009 7:18 pm GMT
This is fairly common in Britain. On this page is an example from Tyneside but it cites others from all over the UK

http://www.bl.uk/learning/langlit/sounds/case-studies/geordie/grammar/
rapp   Tue May 12, 2009 7:36 pm GMT
"He come down..." is used in very rural Southern (US South) dialect.