No, this isn't a question about actual abbreviations used when texting, but rather the grammar patterns for the term 'to text' itself.
I have noticed that here in the UK, some people, myself included, say the following:
I text
He texts
I/He texted
Texts (plural)
Yet I have heard a lot of people say:
I text
He textes
I/He text (past)
Textes (plural)
I wonder why two different sets of morphology have come about, especially regarding the third person/plural addition of 'es' (at least in terms of pronunciation), which doesn't follow the normal pattern in English at all. I mean, no one would refer to multiple texts in a book as 'textes'.
Also, has the same thing happened in the US and other English speaking countries?
I have noticed that here in the UK, some people, myself included, say the following:
I text
He texts
I/He texted
Texts (plural)
Yet I have heard a lot of people say:
I text
He textes
I/He text (past)
Textes (plural)
I wonder why two different sets of morphology have come about, especially regarding the third person/plural addition of 'es' (at least in terms of pronunciation), which doesn't follow the normal pattern in English at all. I mean, no one would refer to multiple texts in a book as 'textes'.
Also, has the same thing happened in the US and other English speaking countries?