Is it correct to say, for instance
It would've grown after I fed him.
It would've grown after I fed him.
Would've + Past Simple
It could be correct, yes, e.g. with the meaning "I think (but do not know for certain) that it grew after I fed him".
It might be difficult to find an occasion to use the sentence, however.
It might be difficult to find an occasion to use the sentence, however.
No, I mean something like:
"I didn't feed him. Because it would have grown after I fed him."
So I didn't feed him because if I did it would have grown (after I did).
"I didn't feed him. Because it would have grown after I fed him."
So I didn't feed him because if I did it would have grown (after I did).
Is the switch in pronoun intentional, meaning that something other than the thing being fed would grow? Otherwise, it would be either "It would've grown after I fed it" or "He would've grown after I fed him."
Maybe some part of him would grow, not his whole body. I bet you didn't think of that.
Yeah the pronoun switch was unintentional, and no, I wasn't referring to his dick.
So in any case, the form is correct if used without pronoun switching, right? And what if I WAS actually referring to his dick? Would that still be correct?
So in any case, the form is correct if used without pronoun switching, right? And what if I WAS actually referring to his dick? Would that still be correct?