Do Americans ever NOT use the subjunctive?

>>English will always have a subjunctive mood, regardless of whether we alter the form of the verb or not. If I say "If I feel like it." <-- the statement was subjunctive, even if the sentence looks selfsame to "I feel like it." (indicative)<<

How come we don't still say "If he feel like it" I wonder? Not even the Americans do.

Although, I'm sure I have had 'If it be...' in modern contexts.

I meant subjunctive mood, obviously. Not case.
Anyway, the verbs in most Latin language seem to have retained their complexity. Sometimes I'm inclined to think they have become more complex than those of Latin.

<<How come we don't still say "If he feel like it" I wonder? Not even the Americans do.

Although, I'm sure I have had 'If it be...' in modern contexts. >>



'If he feel like it' is archaic, and it reflects the actual inflected form of -ø.

Regardless, 'If he feels like it' & 'If he feel like it'--they are BOTH subjunctive moods, one is modern, one is archaic. Either way, subjunctive is still alive.

You seem to be relating 'subjunctive mood' to a verbal conjugation for subjuncive, which it is in many languages. Not so much in English though.

This doesn't mean we don't have it.

Yes, all I meant was that subjunctive with 'If' doesn't follow the same pattern as with other verbs in English any more.