I've noticed that many languages have them in abundance, but not English. In fact, when such constructions are translated into English, they often appear bizarre.
The following examples should illustrate my point: the first element is a sentence written in a language featuring reflexive constructions, the second is the "literal" English translation, and the third is the "correct" English translation.
Português fala-se aqui. --> [Portuguese speaks itself here.] --> (Portuguese is spoken here.)
Die Bücher verkaufen sich. --> [The books sell themselves.] --> (The books are being sold.)
Now, in both "literal" translations, it may appear that the pronoun in the sentence can be interpreted as either a reflexive pronoun or as an intensive/emphatic pronoun. In truth, it can only be the former, since "se" and "sich" are reflexive pronouns in Portuguese and German, respectively - the intensive/emphatic pronouns are "mesmo" and "selbst".
That settled, neither sentence appears to make much sense literally. Perhaps it has something to do with the English language's rigid word order, whereby "the dog bites the man" and "the man bites the dog" mean different things. Or is it something else?
In any case, both of the sentences above used the reflexive as a substitute for the passive. What I want to know is why that isn't done in English. Take the last sentence, for example: "What I want to know is why that doesn't do itself in English."
Linguists, it's time to clarify.
The following examples should illustrate my point: the first element is a sentence written in a language featuring reflexive constructions, the second is the "literal" English translation, and the third is the "correct" English translation.
Português fala-se aqui. --> [Portuguese speaks itself here.] --> (Portuguese is spoken here.)
Die Bücher verkaufen sich. --> [The books sell themselves.] --> (The books are being sold.)
Now, in both "literal" translations, it may appear that the pronoun in the sentence can be interpreted as either a reflexive pronoun or as an intensive/emphatic pronoun. In truth, it can only be the former, since "se" and "sich" are reflexive pronouns in Portuguese and German, respectively - the intensive/emphatic pronouns are "mesmo" and "selbst".
That settled, neither sentence appears to make much sense literally. Perhaps it has something to do with the English language's rigid word order, whereby "the dog bites the man" and "the man bites the dog" mean different things. Or is it something else?
In any case, both of the sentences above used the reflexive as a substitute for the passive. What I want to know is why that isn't done in English. Take the last sentence, for example: "What I want to know is why that doesn't do itself in English."
Linguists, it's time to clarify.