WHY TOI INSTEAD OF TE?

WHY DO THE FRENCH SAY FOR EXAMPLE:

PEIGNE-TOI

ISTEAD OF

PEIGNE-TE

THIS IS CONFUSING AND



WHY DOES THE VERB COME AFTER? UN EXAMPLE SIMPLE:

JA VAIS ME PEIGNER

INSTEAD OF

JE VAIS PEIGNER ME?




WHY THIS IS MAKING MY LIFE CONFUSING!

Reflexive verbs.

It's a pain, but just get used to it.

''WHY DOES THE VERB COME AFTER? UN EXAMPLE SIMPLE:

JA VAIS ME PEIGNER

INSTEAD OF

JE VAIS PEIGNER ME? ''


It's just like in Brazilian:

Eu vou me acordar. = I am going to wake myself up.
Eu não vou me acordar. = I am not going to wake myself up.

the clitic is placed in front of the main verb with which it makes
a pronouncing group:

eu não vou/ me acordar


The same thing in:

Pode se dizer. = One can say
pode / se dizer

Não pode se dizer. = One cannot say.
Não pode/ se dizer

it is latin derived

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Why do the French say, for example:
PEIGNE-TOI
Instead of:
PEIGNE-TE (I'm guessing Peinate/Comb yourself)

This is confusing, and:

Why does the verb come after? Un exampel simple:
JA VAIS ME PEIGNER
Instead of:
JE VAIS PEIGNER ME?
------------------------------------------------------------

This has bothered me to. I'm used to:
Yo me voy a peinar (Je me vais au peigner)
And
'Je vais peigner me' also frustrates me, I'm inclined to say
Yo voy a peinarme (Je vais a peigner me)

<<
WHY DO THE FRENCH SAY FOR EXAMPLE:

PEIGNE-TOI

ISTEAD OF

PEIGNE-TE
>>

Because you make a confusion with Spanish...

PEIGNE-MOI