les or le?

Why is "no les den de comer a los animales wrong" and no le den de comer a los animales right?

Hi another spanish question,

Le= singular masc./fem. indirect object (a él/a ella)
Les= plural masc./fem. indirect object (a ellos/ a ellas)

"Animales" is plural, then the "les" has to be used in this case.

The omision of "s" endings in Spanish is a very common mistake among Spanish speakers. Here is another one, especially in Latinamerica, where the form "vosotros is never used:

Se *los* dije instead of se *lo* dije (I told (that to) you (plural)), using the "vosotros" form, it is easier to avoid the mistake:
Os lo dije.

Here is another one:
Dánolo instead of dánoslo (give it to us)....

"The omision of "s" endings in Spanish is a very common mistake among Spanish speakers"


True. Especially in Mexico when conjugationing verbs of the second person.

For example:
tú (te) lo trajistes, instead of, tú (te) lo trajiste

>This sibilant s phenomenon is found in certain parts of Spain (i.e. Salamanca, Valladolid etc.) and in some states of Mexico (i.e. Jalisco and its surrounding states)

To hear a similar resemblance go here:
http://www.uiowa.edu/~acadtech/phonetics/spanish/frameset.html

(click on fricatives and go to the bottom of the page and CLICK on -[s]- with the cedilla below it. )

&

Whereas in other parts of Latin America it would be pronounced or have tendency to aspirate the s:
tú (te) lo trajite
cosah = cosas
lihta = lista
kohta = costa
meh = mes

To hear a similar resemblance go here:

http://www.uiowa.edu/~acadtech/phonetics/spanish/frameset.html

(click on fricatives and go to the bottom of the page and CLICK on -[h]- )

Actually Spaniards tend to skip the "S's" and "D's" at the end of the words as well because of their accent, if they pronounced the words completely it would mess off with the rhythm of the sentence. Probably the only ones, that pronounce every word properly and without "eating" any letters are the Mexicans because besides the lower class they have a neutral accent, (not like the "andale andale arriva arriva" speedy-gonzalez kinda thing, that most people think.)

Only really ignorant people would say "comistez" instead of "comiste" (you ate).

At the same time, almost everyone would say "tienes" (you have) (which is the right way to say it) instead of "tieneh" (without pronouning the S) like most Latinos.

dunno if I made my self clear?

In past, you do not add an "S", and in present you do add it, though most latinos don't pronounce it because of their accent.

I think that the pronouns in Spanish are stupid and much less clear than the way we say things in English.

Can't "Se lo dije." mean a lot of different things? It could mean "I told it to him/her/them/you." "Se" can mean 4 different English pronouns! You could say that all you have to do is add "a el/ella/ellos/ellas/ustedes" to make it clearer who you're talking about, but in that case, what's the use of "se"? There is none.

You obviously don't know shit about Spanish, if you wan to collaborate producibly please learn Spanish so you may say a logic comment.

The "problem" with the S's is just like the problem with the R's in English.

Canadian Pronunciation
Bigger

British Pronunciation
Biggea.

And that’s basically it, that’s all I tried to explain.

Mexican Spanish actually sounds a lot like Greek. Focus on the Sibilant S pronunciation of the Mexican-speaker and of the Greek-speaker of the bottom PROVIDED links. Clearly the Mexican-speaker is speaking a more NEUTRAL form of Spanish with medium sibilant S pronunciation emphasis. Whereas other speakers of Mexico (i.e. Jalisco and others) would have a clearer intonation and emphasis on the Sibilant S like on here:

http://www.uiowa.edu/~acadtech/phonetics/spanish/frameset.html

(click on fricatives and go to the bottom of the page and CLICK on -[s]- with the cedilla below it. )

Compare this>

http://static.unilang.org/resources/pronscript/sonidos/soundfiles/sonido_el.mp3

with this>

http://static.unilang.org/resources/pronscript/sonidos/soundfiles/sonido_es_mexico.mp3

Enjoy!

You don't understand English you stupid spic. I wasn't talking about pronunciation. I was talking about Spanish's ambiguous grammar.

Exactely, all the things you said made no sence you stupid Yank, once you learn spanish you can talk to me.

If you guys want to listen to how people from Jalisco (Mexico) sound like go here, notice how they emphasized smoothly on their s's and have a clear intonation:

http://youtube.com/watch?v=ssJ7M-JIBQE

<<Exactely, all the things you said made no sence you stupid Yank, once you learn spanish you can talk to me.>>

Except I wasn't responding to you, dumbass. My post had nothing to do with your crap about how "s" is pronounced in different dialects of Spanish.

¿Qué?

I am not going to speak your shitty language, so you can give up on that.