Between "not be quite oneself" and "be not quite oneself" in a glossary of a book, which one sounds more acceptable to you?
Which word order is more acceptable?
I guess the latter, because I would prefer:
"He's not quite himself."
over:
"He isn't quite himself."
"He's not quite himself."
over:
"He isn't quite himself."
I like the latter too, but Lazar's two sentences are the same thing if you take out the contractions.
D'oh! You're right - I don't know what I was thinking. :) In either case, then, I suppose "be not quite oneself" would be preferable.
But then there's:
"He wouldn't be quite himself, if he were to have a stroke."
In this case it looks like "not be quite oneself" is appropriate.
"He wouldn't be quite himself, if he were to have a stroke."
In this case it looks like "not be quite oneself" is appropriate.
>>But then there's:
"He wouldn't be quite himself, if he were to have a stroke."
In this case it looks like "not be quite oneself" is appropriate.>>
Lol, and actually in that case, I might use a different order from the other two and say, "He wouldn't quite be himself, if he were to have a stroke.
"He wouldn't be quite himself, if he were to have a stroke."
In this case it looks like "not be quite oneself" is appropriate.>>
Lol, and actually in that case, I might use a different order from the other two and say, "He wouldn't quite be himself, if he were to have a stroke.